A 65-year-old man with nonischemic cardiomyopathy treated with furosemide, carvedilol, lisinopril, and digoxin comes to the emergency department with palpitations. His last left ventricular ejection fraction was 35%. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg and pulse is 130/min and irregular. Lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. ECG shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and nonspecific T-wave changes. Therapy with rivaroxaban and amiodarone is initiated with improvement in symptoms. The patient is discharged home after 2 days, with these new medications added to his initial regimen. Two weeks later, he returns to the emergency department with profound anorexia, nausea, and generalized weakness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Drug interaction
B) Erosive gastritis
C) Gastrointestinal bleeding
D) Mesenteric ischemia
E) Occult carcinoma
F) Pancreatitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q858: A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q859: A 34-year-old man comes to the office
Q860: A 60-year-old man comes to the physician
Q861: A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q862: An 84-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q864: A 45-year-old man comes to the office
Q865: A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q866: A 64-year-old man is evaluated for lower
Q867: A 64-year-old man comes to the physician
Q868: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents