A 64-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the office due to generalized malaise and palpitations for the past 2 weeks. An echocardiogram last year showed mild left atrial dilation and left ventricular hypertrophy. The patient's medications include lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. Blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg. ECG rhythm strip is shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Adenosine
B) Emergency electrical cardioversion
C) Carotid sinus massage
D) Diltiazem
E) Lidocaine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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