A 27-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 15 years ago comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient takes insulin glargine at night and insulin lispro before meals 3 times a day, but has not been compliant with his insulin injections. He stopped taking his insulin for the last 2 days due to not feeling well and inability to eat. The patient's medical history is otherwise unremarkable. He does not use tobacco or alcohol. Temperature is 36 C (96.8 F) , blood pressure is 102/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 26/min. The patient appears lethargic and dehydrated. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) 0) 45% saline and regular insulin infusion
B) 5% dextrose and NPH insulin subcutaneously
C) Hypertonic saline and regular insulin infusion
D) Normal saline and regular insulin infusion
E) Normal saline and resume his home insulin regimen
F) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Correct Answer:
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