A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for follow-up after a recent emergency department visit for abdominal pain. The pain subsided with analgesics. However, he was found to have elevated blood pressure and an incidental right adrenal mass on abdominal imaging. The patient has no prior abnormal findings. He has no symptoms except mild headache, which he attributes to stress at work. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient's blood pressure today is 160/94 mm Hg. Serum potassium is 3.0 mEq/L and sodium is 146 mEq/L. Further workup shows a plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio of 45. He refuses to undergo surgery for removal of the adrenal mass. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient?
A) Chlorthalidone
B) Clonidine
C) Eplerenone
D) Hydralazine
E) Ramipril
F) Verapamil
Correct Answer:
Verified
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