A 66-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the office due to burning and stabbing pain in his feet for the past few months. The pain is severe enough to interfere with his daily activities and is worse at night. His medical history is notable for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction 4 years ago. The patient is on a mixed regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart, in addition to other medications, including metoprolol, valsartan, atorvastatin, and aspirin. On physical examination, there is loss of ankle reflexes bilaterally, with loss of vibratory sensation and altered proprioception below the knees. Hemoglobin A1c is 8.6% and serum creatinine is 1.55 mg/dL. In addition to optimizing glycemic control, which of the following is the most appropriate medication for management of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Ketorolac
C) Oxycodone
D) Prednisone
E) Pregabalin
Correct Answer:
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