A 62-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of diabetes treatment. She has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 10 years, which is managed with oral metformin twice daily and insulin glargine at bedtime. The patient has no chest pain, dizziness, sweating, polyuria, or palpitations. She checks her blood glucose level every morning and has had values of 75-132 mg/dL over the last month. Medical history is notable for hypertension and mild intermittent asthma, for which the patient takes lisinopril, amlodipine, and albuterol as needed. Blood pressure is 128/72 mm Hg and pulse is 79/min. BMI is 41 kg/m2. Laboratory results show a random glucose level of 298 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c of 8.1%. Which of the following best explains the suboptimal glycemic control in this patient?
A) Autoimmune pancreatitis
B) Dawn phenomenon
C) Inadequate basal insulin coverage
D) Insulin-neutralizing antibodies
E) Postprandial hyperglycemia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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