A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office with abnormal uterine bleeding. The patient underwent menarche at age 15 and had irregular menses that normalized with oral contraceptives. She used oral contraceptives until 4 years ago, when she became pregnant and had a cesarean delivery with tubal ligation. The patient's menstrual cycles after delivery occurred monthly with 4-5 days of moderate bleeding. However, over the last year, her menses have become increasingly irregular and now occur every 2-3 months, with heavier bleeding and passage of clots. She also has had difficulty concentrating at work due to increasing irritability and depressed mood. She has no headaches or hot flushes. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Skin is cool and dry. Pelvic examination reveals a well-rugated vagina, mobile uterus, and small, nontender ovaries. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Pregnancy test is negative. This patient's laboratory results would most likely reveal which of the following?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Correct Answer:
Verified
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