A 65-year-old man comes to the office with a 1-year history of erectile dysfunction and decreased libido. He has hypertension that was diagnosed 5 years ago and is controlled with diet. The patient has no history of cardiac problems, unexpected weight loss, visual changes, or symptoms of neuropathy. Family history is unremarkable. On examination, there is minimal bilateral gynecomastia without galactorrhea. Genitourinary examination shows decreased testicular size. The remainder of the physical examination, including visual fields on confrontation, is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Repeat early-morning testosterone level is 162 ng/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Angiography of the deep arteries of the penis
B) Measurement of serum prolactin level
C) Measurement of transferrin saturation
D) Sildenafil treatment
E) Testosterone therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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