A 38-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 30 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to severe epigastric pain that started 6 hours ago. The pain began suddenly, is constant, and radiates to her back. She also has associated nausea and has had multiple episodes of vomiting. The patient has a history of hypertriglyceridemia, and her fibrate medication was discontinued at her initial prenatal visit. Her only current medication is a prenatal vitamin. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 18/min. Fetal heart tones are 155/min. The abdomen is tender over the epigastric region; there is no rebound or guarding. Bowels sounds are normal. The uterus is nontender and has no palpable contractions. Laboratory results are as follows:
A right upper quadrant ultrasound reveals no biliary sludge or dilation of the biliary tree. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) CT scan of the abdomen
C) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
D) Lipid panel
E) Urine protein/creatinine ratio
Correct Answer:
Verified
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