A 64-year-old man comes to the office for the evaluation of new-onset diarrhea. He has noted 6-8 watery, brown stools every day for the past 2 weeks. There have been frequent nocturnal episodes of diarrhea, obliging the patient to wear a diaper while sleeping. He reports no bulky, foul-smelling stools or melena, hematochezia, or abdominal pain. The patient was recently diagnosed with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma and began chemotherapy 4 weeks ago. He has had no sick contacts or recent travel. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are stable. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Rectal examination reveals brown, nonbloody stool. Laboratory studies are as follows:
Stool tests are negative for fecal occult blood and Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile. Which of the following pharmacologic agents would be most beneficial for this patient?
A) Cholestyramine
B) Loperamide
C) Metronidazole
D) Pancrelipase
E) Prednisone
F) Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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