A 35-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of ulcerative colitis. The condition was diagnosed 8 years ago and, at that time, involved the entire colon. The patient started taking mesalamine and has been asymptomatic ever since. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Family history is negative for inflammatory bowel disease and cancer. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
A) Offer colonoscopy now and every 1-3 years thereafter
B) Offer colonoscopy now and every 5 years thereafter
C) Recommend prophylactic colectomy with ileal pouch
D) Recommend surveillance colonoscopy starting at age 45
E) Surveillance colonoscopy is not needed because the patient's disease is well controlled
Correct Answer:
Verified
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