A 32-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of intermittent abdominal cramps and diarrhea for the past several years, which are increasing in frequency. Her bowel movements alternate between solid stools and 3 or 4 episodes of watery diarrhea per day, often containing mucus. The diarrhea is frequently preceded by lower abdominal cramps that improve after defecation. The patient also reports an occasional bloating sensation and nausea but has had no fevers, night sweats, hematochezia, melena, vomiting, or weight loss. There are no specific food triggers. Medical history is notable for anxiety during her college years and she takes no medications. Her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 62. She smokes 4 or 5 cigarettes daily and drinks alcohol on social occasions. Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 74/min, and there are no orthostatic changes. On physical examination, the patient is well-appearing with no scleral icterus, and the mucous membranes are pink and moist. There are no oral lesions. Lungs are clear on auscultation and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is nondistended and soft with mild lower quadrant tenderness on deep palpation. There is no hepatosplenomegaly and bowel sounds are normal. No extremity edema or skin rashes are present. Laboratory testing shows the following.
Serum IgA and antitissue transglutaminase levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal CT scan
B) Colonoscopy
C) Fecal fat measurement
D) Jejunal aspirate culture
E) No further testing necessary
F) Urea breath testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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