A 56-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of chronic diarrhea. The patient began experiencing daily watery bowel movements several months ago and tried eliminating dairy products, but the diarrhea continued to worsen. Lately, she has been having 5-6 bowel movements daily and occasionally at night. The patient has had no melena, hematochezia, fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or weight loss but does have fecal urgency. Medical history is significant for obesity, hypertension, and knee osteoarthritis. Home medications include hydrochlorothiazide and naproxen. She drinks a glass of wine with dinner daily but does not smoke cigarettes. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is nondistended, soft, and nontender with no organomegaly. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Stool testing for occult blood is negative. Colonoscopy reveals a normal-appearing colon. Random colonic biopsies demonstrate mononuclear cell infiltration of the lamina propria and a thickened subepithelial collagen band. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile infection
B) Crohn disease
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Laxative abuse
E) Microscopic colitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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