A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to progressive fatigue. For several years, the patient has had recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhea associated with bloody stools. Two years ago, he underwent a colonoscopy with biopsy, which demonstrated contiguous proctocolitis with pseudopolyps, mucosal ulcerations, and crypt abscesses. Oral 5-aminosalicylic acid and corticosteroid enemas controlled his symptoms, but he has had extreme fatigue for the past several months to where he feels drained by the end of the day. The patient has had no weight loss. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 134/90 mm Hg, pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 15/min. Examination shows mild left lower quadrant tenderness on deep palpation. There is no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Anti-smooth muscle antibody assay
B) Biliary scintigraphy (HIDA scan)
C) Carcinoembryonic antigen level
D) CT scan of the abdomen
E) Liver biopsy
F) Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
Correct Answer:
Verified
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