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A 45-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Due to Epigastric

Question 1152

Multiple Choice

A 45-year-old man comes to the physician due to epigastric pain and diarrhea.  Past medical history is significant for peptic ulcer disease.  He has a 20-pack-year smoking history but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs.  Physical examination shows abdominal tenderness without rebound or rigidity.  Endoscopy shows prominent gastric folds, 3 duodenal ulcers, and upper jejunal ulceration.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?


A) Calcium infusion study
B) Jejunal ulcer biopsy
C) Serum chromogranin A
D) Serum gastrin concentration
E) Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori

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