A 35-year-old Caucasian male with aplastic anemia undergoes bone marrow transplantation. The donor is an HLA-matched sibling. Two weeks after the procedure, he develops a maculopapular pruritic rash that is predominantly found on his face, hands, and feet. He also complains of diarrhea. The stool is positive for occult blood. Liver function tests are abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism of this patient's condition?
A) Activation of the donor T lymphocytes
B) Activation of the donor B-lymphocytes
C) Activation of the host T lymphocytes
D) Virus-induced lymphocyte proliferation
E) Depression of the donor myelopoiesis
Correct Answer:
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