A 71-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer comes to the office due to progressively worsening back pain. The patient reports pain of 5 on a 10-point scale. The pain is notably worse with movement and limits his activity. He reports no lower extremity weakness or numbness and no bladder or bowel dysfunction. He is taking ibuprofen 3 or 4 times a day, and his pain is not controlled. The patient takes androgen deprivation therapy and has also received palliative radiotherapy for multiple lumbar spine metastases recently. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 140/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Lower extremity motor strength, deep tendon reflexes, and sensation are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient's pain?
A) Short-acting opioid
B) Substitution of ibuprofen with naproxen
C) Systemic glucocorticoid
D) Topical capsaicin
E) Transdermal fentanyl patch
Correct Answer:
Verified
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