A 35-year-old woman comes to the office due to 2 months of productive cough, fever, and weight loss. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. She works as a janitor at a prison in Baltimore. The patient has never traveled outside of Baltimore. She does not use tobacco or illicit drugs but drinks 1 or 2 beers each evening. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 15/min. Examination shows cervical lymphadenopathy and fine crackles at the left upper posterior thorax. Chest x-ray reveals an infiltrate with a small cavity in the left upper lobe. Sputum Gram stain and acid-fast staining show no organisms. Sputum culture is pending. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate and levofloxacin
B) Isoniazid and rifampin empiric therapy
C) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol empiric therapy
D) Levofloxacin monotherapy
E) No additional therapy until culture results are available
Correct Answer:
Verified
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