A 67-year-old man comes to the office due to worsening urinary frequency, hesitancy, and nocturia for the past year. He wakes up 2 or 3 times a night to void. The patient also says that the force of his urinary stream is decreased and he feels that his bladder is not completely evacuated after voiding. He has a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis. The patient has a 35-pack-year smoking history but stopped smoking 10 years ago. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. Rectal examination reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate with no nodules and normal rectal sphincter tone. Postvoid bladder scan shows 75 mL of urine (normal, <12 mL) . Serum creatinine and urinalysis are normal. Serum prostate-specific antigen is 2.8 ng/mL (age-adjusted reference value <4.5 ng/mL) . Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor
B) α-adrenoreceptor blocker
C) Intermittent urinary catheterization
D) Transrectal prostate biopsy
E) Transurethral prostate resection
F) Urodynamic studies
Correct Answer:
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