A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to urinary frequency, burning pain on urination, severe nausea, and weakness. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. Her last menstrual period was a year ago, and she is not sexually active. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient is obese. Mild costovertebral angle tenderness is present. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis shows many white blood cells. Intravenous ceftriaxone is started. Two days later, the patient feels better, is eating well, and is afebrile. Urine culture results show Escherichia coli sensitive to ceftriaxone, gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Add oral ciprofloxacin to ceftriaxone
B) Continue intravenous ceftriaxone
C) Discontinue antibiotics
D) Switch to intravenous gentamicin
E) Switch to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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