A 31-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to shortness of breath and anxiety. She has no associated chest pain or palpitations. She recently returned from a trip to Thailand. The patient does not smoke and drinks alcohol occasionally. She is married and uses barrier contraception. The patient has a history of anxiety and sleep problems, and her family history is negative for heart attack or blood clots but positive for colon cancer (her uncle at age 58) . She is afebrile. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 24/min. Estimated jugular venous pressure is normal. The chest is clear to auscultation. There is no extremity edema and no skin rashes are present. Arterial blood gas analysis shows:
Chest x-ray and D-dimer are normal. Her symptoms resolve over the next hour. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Compression ultrasound of legs
B) CT pulmonary angiogram
C) Echocardiography
D) Oral anticoagulant
E) Reassurance and follow-up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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