A 58-year-old man hospitalized for confusion is evaluated for elevated serum creatinine. He has a history of cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C infection, and evaluation at the time of admission revealed hepatic encephalopathy and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Since admission, the patient's mental status has gradually improved with lactulose and cefotaxime therapy, but his renal functioning has worsened. At home, he takes furosemide, spironolactone, and nadolol, all of which were stopped at the time of admission. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg, and pulse is 102/min. Physical examination shows jaundice, spider angiomas, ascites, and leg edema. He has no skin rash. Serum creatinine and urine output since admission are shown below.
Urinalysis reveals 1-2 erythrocytes/hpf with no significant casts or protein. Renal ultrasound shows normal-size kidneys with no hydronephrosis. There has been no improvement in renal function with intravenous saline and albumin infusion. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this patient's renal dysfunction?
A) Drug-mediated renal tubular injury
B) Glomerular immune complex deposition
C) Intravascular volume depletion
D) Renal interstitial inflammation
E) Splanchnic arterial dilation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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