A 66-year-old man comes to the physician for regular follow-up. He experiences mild fatigue but otherwise has no complaints. The patient has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, chronic kidney disease, and ischemic cardiomyopathy. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination shows moist mucous membranes. There is a 2/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex that is unchanged from a previous finding. He has trace bilateral lower-extremity edema. Laboratory results are as follows:
Two months ago, his creatinine was 2.3 mg/dL. Electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm without other abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer calcium gluconate
B) Measure serum renin and aldosterone levels
C) Obtain serum ketone levels
D) Obtain urinalysis and urine electrolytes
E) Review current medications
Correct Answer:
Verified
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