A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic for routine follow-up. She currently feels well. The patient has a history of Henoch-Schönlein purpura since childhood, resulting in stable chronic kidney disease with a baseline creatinine of 2.2-2.4 mg/dL and low-grade proteinuria (<1 g/day) . She has hypertension, which is managed well with lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. Blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Examination shows no evidence of volume overload. Laboratory results are as follows:
Her potassium level 4 weeks ago was 5.3 mEq/L. Urine albuminuria is unchanged from that time. In addition to dietary counseling, what is the best next step in management of this patient's current condition?
A) Change lisinopril to losartan
B) Initiate hemodialysis
C) Start oral calcium carbonate
D) Start oral patiromer
E) Start oral sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer:
Verified
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