A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to increasing left flank pain, nausea, and hematuria for 5 days. The pain is dull, constant, and nonradiating. Yesterday, the patient also noticed swelling of the left testis. He was diagnosed with idiopathic membranous nephropathy 6 months ago. The diagnosis was confirmed by kidney biopsy and is medically managed. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Examination reveals left flank tenderness. Dilated and tortuous veins are noted in the left scrotum. Bilateral 1+ pitting edema is also present. Which of the following most likely underlies this patient's acute presentation?
A) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
B) Hypercoagulability
C) Increased urine calcium excretion
D) Malignancy
E) Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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