A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 24-hour history of progressive lower abdominal discomfort and difficulty voiding. The patient has never had urinary difficulty in the past. He has a history of hypertension, ischemic stroke with mild left-sided residual weakness, and a recent episode of abdominal shingles. The patient also reports several days of non-productive cough and has been taking over-the-counter diphenhydramine for 2 days. He is a former smoker and does not drink alcohol. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 105/min. The patient appears restless. Bilateral breath sounds are normal with no added sounds. Cardiac examination reveals regular rhythm. Previous area of shingles on the abdominal wall has no active lesions but the area is hyperesthetic. There is suprapubic fullness and tenderness. A mildly enlarged, nontender prostate is palpated on the rectal examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Abdominal muscle weakness
B) Bladder motor nerve injury
C) Detrusor hypocontractility
D) Internal sphincter spasm
E) Urethral extrinsic compression
Correct Answer:
Verified
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