A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician complaining of a 3-day history of burning with urination and increased urinary frequency. She has suprapubic discomfort but no unusual vaginal discharge. The patient has been sexually active and monogamous with her husband for the past 4 years. She has never been pregnant and uses condoms for contraception. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, and her last sexual encounter was 2 days ago. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.1 C (98.9 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 15/min. Examination shows suprapubic tenderness without flank tenderness. The rest of the examination is within normal limits. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
B) Oral amoxicillin
C) Oral levofloxacin
D) Oral nitrofurantoin
E) Urine culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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