A 35-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of low back pain. He has aching pain in the left lumbar paraspinal area that is worse at the end of the day and relieved overnight with rest. The pain began 3 months ago with no precipitating trauma. The patient was initially treated with intermittent doses of acetaminophen and naproxen but continues to have moderate residual pain. There is no associated fever, weight loss, radicular pain, lower extremity weakness, or urinary symptoms. Medical history is unremarkable. The patient is employed as a factory line worker, requiring him to lift 5-7 kg (11-15 lb) several times daily. Vital signs are normal. On physical examination, the patient appears comfortable. Cervical and thoracic spine range of motion is normal, but flexion and extension of the lumbar spine elicit pain. Straight-leg raising test is normal. There is mild tenderness in the left lumbar paraspinal tissues but no midline tenderness. Upper and lower extremity strength and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the best recommendation for management of this patient's pain?
A) Discontinue working until the pain is resolved
B) Epidural glucocorticoid injection
C) Exercise therapy
D) Lumbar support brace
E) Scheduled dose of benzodiazepine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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