A 65-year-old woman, who recently relocated after retiring, comes to the office to establish medical care. The patient has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. She does not monitor blood pressure at home and reports "fair" glycemic control with oral antidiabetic medications. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs, and formerly worked as a salesperson in a department store. Blood pressure is 138/76 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Foot examination reveals her 3rd and 4th toes appear "claw shaped," with dorsiflexion of the proximal phalanges at the metatarsophalangeal joints and plantar flexion of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's lower extremity findings?
A) Diabetic neuropathy
B) Foot osteoarthritis
C) Morton neuroma
D) Plantar fasciitis
E) Spinal stenosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1544: A 23-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1545: A 45-year-old man comes to the office
Q1546: A 66-year-old man is admitted to the
Q1547: A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q1548: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician
Q1550: A 46-year-old woman suffering from systemic lupus
Q1551: A 30-year-old man comes to the office
Q1552: A 35-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1553: A 35-year-old man comes to the office
Q1554: A 63-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents