A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician with pain and stiffness of her wrists and hand joints for the last several months. Her morning stiffness lasts for more than an hour. She also complains of joint swelling. Her past medical history is significant only for a similar episode a year ago, which resolved with over-the-counter ibuprofen. Joint examination shows mild redness, warmth, swelling, and tenderness in the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists. X-rays show periarticular osteopenia and erosions of the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. The patient began taking indomethacin, which provides good relief, but symptoms recur if she skips a dose. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Azathioprine
B) Celecoxib
C) Etanercept
D) Glucocorticoids
E) Infliximab
F) Methotrexate
G) No additional treatment
Correct Answer:
Verified
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