A 70-year-old man comes to the office due to pain and stiffness of his neck, shoulders, and hip region for the last 3 months. His stiffness is worse in the morning and lasts 1-2 hours. He also has had general malaise and a recent weight loss of 3.17 kg (7 lb) . The patient has no headache, scalp tenderness, visual symptoms, or jaw claudication. Examination shows no overt synovitis at the joints, with normal passive range of motion. The arteries of the scalp, neck, and extremities are normal on palpation without tenderness. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Measure antinuclear antibodies levels
B) Recommend low-impact aerobic exercise
C) Temporal artery biopsy
D) Treatment with low-dose prednisone
E) Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Correct Answer:
Verified
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