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A 40-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Pain

Question 1573

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old woman comes to the office due to pain in her right hip for the past 4 weeks.  The pain increases with weight bearing.  She has no morning stiffness, warmth, or erythema, and no pain in other joints.  The patient has no history of significant trauma to the hip and has not had similar pain before.  She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 7 years ago.  Her current medications include low-dose prednisone, hydroxychloroquine, and lansoprazole.  The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  She is afebrile, and vital signs are normal.  There is no local tenderness over any joints, and range of motion of the right hip is normal.  Plain film radiograph of the hip is normal.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Bone densitometry
B) Increasing the dose of prednisone
C) Joint aspiration
D) MRI of the hip
E) Naproxen and reassurance

Correct Answer:

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