A 60-year-old man comes to the office due to a 6-month history of constant back pain, thigh pain, and headache. He has moderate, deep, achy pain in the mid lumbar area that does not radiate and is worse with changes in position such as rolling over in bed. The patient has no significant history of trauma, and the course of his symptoms has been stable but persistent. He has been taking acetaminophen without relief. There is no associated nausea, vomiting, weight loss, fever, difficulty walking, leg numbness, or urinary symptoms. Medical history is notable for hypertension treated with chlorthalidone and lisinopril. He also uses a hearing aid for recently acquired, left-sided hearing loss. Blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 12/min. BMI is 29 kg/m2. The patient appears comfortable and in no acute distress. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. He has mild thoracic dextroscoliosis and a decrease in the normal lumbar lordosis. The lower extremities show mild anterolateral femoral bowing. Upper and lower motor strength, sensation, and reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Calcium malabsorption
B) Osteoblast apoptosis
C) Osteoclast dysfunction
D) Parathyroid hormone/calcitonin imbalance
E) Plasma cell dyscrasia
F) Vitamin D overproduction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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