A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to severe back pain following a fall. He tripped while getting out of his car and landed on his back. The patient has a 20-year history of ankylosing spondylitis, for which he takes prescribed medication regularly, but he has never had pain similar to this. His medical history is also notable for a duodenal ulcer 7 years ago. The patient does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal except for a mild, regular tachycardia. He appears to be in pain, with grimacing and diaphoresis. Examination shows midline tenderness over the upper lumbar region. Spinal range of motion is restricted. There is no tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Cardiac auscultation shows an early diastolic murmur. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current pain?
A) Disc herniation
B) Referred visceral pain
C) Spinal metastasis
D) Spondylitis flare-up
E) Spondylolisthesis
F) Vertebral fracture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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