A 76-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to confusion for the past hour. The patient's husband says she started having an occipital headache 2 hours ago and took acetaminophen and went to bed. An hour later, he had difficulty waking her and found her confused. Medical history is significant for hypertension and seizure disorder. The patient takes phenytoin, amlodipine, and lisinopril. She lives with her husband and is independent in her daily activities. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F) , blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min and regular. The patient is somnolent but wakes up with painful stimuli and withdraws all 4 extremities to pain. She is unable to follow simple commands and mumbles a few unintelligible words. Deep tendon reflexes are symmetric, and Babinski sign is absent bilaterally. Fingerstick blood glucose is 110 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the head with contrast
B) CT scan of the head without contrast
C) Electroencephalogram
D) Lumbar puncture
E) Serum phenytoin level
F) Urinalysis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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