A 74-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to sudden onset of complete vision loss in her right eye. Her vision had been blurry for the past 24 hours and acutely worsened an hour ago. The patient has had no weakness or sensory changes in the extremities. Review of systems is positive for 2 months of generalized headaches. She has no nausea or vomiting but does have malaise and fatigue. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and bilateral cataract surgeries. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 156/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Examination shows complete loss of vision in the right eye. The pupils are 4 mm bilaterally. Funduscopy shows a swollen pale disc with blurred margins. The lateral scalp is tender to palpation. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Motor and sensory examinations are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A) High-dose systemic glucocorticoid
B) Intravenous acetazolamide
C) Low-dose oral glucocorticoid
D) Subcutaneous sumatriptan
E) Systemic thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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