A 74-year-old woman is brought to the office by her daughter due to behavioral changes. Over the past month, the patient has become more withdrawn. She no longer watches her favorite television shows and seems less interested in her family. The daughter has noticed increasing forgetfulness over the past 3 years but assumed it "comes with aging." Over the past year, the patient has stopped doing the daily crossword, has had difficulty remembering to eat and clean herself, and has occasionally failed to recognize her grandchildren. Montreal Cognitive Assessment is 22/30 (normal: ≥26) . Serum TSH and vitamin B12 levels are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate amantadine
B) Initiate fluoxetine
C) Initiate rivastigmine
D) Initiate selegiline
E) Provide reassurance and close follow-up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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