A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to difficulty walking and frequent falls. One week ago he had numbness in his toes and fingertips that progressed to lower-extremity weakness. He had an upper respiratory tract infection 4 weeks ago that resolved spontaneously. The patient has no bowel or bladder complaints. His past medical history is unremarkable. His temperature is 36.9° C (98.5° F) , blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg supine and 100/62 mm Hg standing, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows muscle weakness in both lower extremities and absent knee and ankle reflexes bilaterally. The sensory examination is unremarkable. Lumbar puncture is performed and cerebrospinal fluid analysis results are as follows:
What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Cyclosporine
B) Intravenous acyclovir
C) Intravenous immunoglobulin
D) Intravenous methylprednisolone
E) Pyridostigmine
F) Riluzole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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