A 57-year-old man comes to the office due to involuntary shaking of his hands. It started on the right side, but now his left hand shakes as well. The shaking disappears with purposeful activity and worsens with emotional stress. He does not have a family history of tremors. Physical examination reveals a resting hand tremor with a frequency of 5-7 cycles/sec. There is some muscle rigidity of both arms. His gait and posture are normal. His mini mental status exam yields a score of 30/30. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Clonazepam
B) Clozapine
C) Primidone
D) Propranolol
E) Trihexyphenidyl
Correct Answer:
Verified
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