A 60-year-old woman comes to the office due to "balance problems while walking." The patient has had 2 falls over the last 2 months associated with tingling in her feet and dull pains in her back and legs. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus; her most recent hemoglobin A1c was 7.6%. Neurological examination reveals decreased muscle strength in both legs, diminished proprioception peripherally in the feet, decreased pain sensation in the feet and ankles, a hyperactive right knee jerk, and an upgoing plantar reflex on the right side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's symptoms?
A) MRI of the spine
B) Nerve conduction studies
C) Physical therapy referral
D) Repetitive stimulation electromyography
E) Tight blood glucose control
Correct Answer:
Verified
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