A 65-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of slowly progressive right-hand weakness for the past 3 months. The patient has no pain or numbness. Medical history is significant for degenerative joint disease in both his hips and hypertension. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows atrophy of right thenar eminence and first and second web spaces. Muscle strength testing reveals decreased right grip strength and moderate weakness of the finger abduction. Tendon reflexes are 3+ in the right arm and 1+ in the left arm and lower limbs. Sensory examination shows no abnormalities. Electrophysiologic studies reveal widespread fibrillations and positive sharp waves in bilateral upper and lower extremity muscle groups. The underlying mechanism of this patient's disease most likely involves an abnormality in which of the following?
A) Anterior horn cell
B) Dorsal spinal root
C) Neuromuscular junction
D) Peripheral nerve
E) Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer:
Verified
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