A 4-year-old boy is brought to the office due to a 1-day fever of 38.4 C (101.1 F) and left-sided neck swelling. His mother says, "He was fine until yesterday, but now his neck is really bothering him." The patient has had no trauma to the area, has not been ill recently, and has no known sick contacts. Vaccinations are up to date. Physical examination shows a red, tender, and fluctuant mass approximately 2 cm in diameter in the left anterior cervical lymph node chain. Dentition and oropharynx are normal. There are no other areas of lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely infectious etiology?
A) Adenovirus
B) Bartonella henselae
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Prevotella buccae
F) Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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