A 27-year-old man comes to the office for postdischarge follow-up of a recent psychiatric hospitalization for a depressive episode with suicidal ideation. The patient's depressive episode remitted with intensive inpatient psychotherapy and the initiation of a new medication regimen 1 month ago. The patient has been home for a week and is feeling well. He has a history of migraine headaches, bipolar disorder, and tobacco use disorder. Family history is significant for major depressive disorder in his father. Temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F) , blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Examination is significant for a maculopapular rash over the patient's left scapula. The patient is unaware of the rash, and discharge paperwork from the previous week does not document any rash. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Escitalopram
B) Haloperidol
C) Lamotrigine
D) Lurasidone
E) Olanzapine
F) Quetiapine
G) Sertraline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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