A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department with cramping lower abdominal pain, mild nausea, and 2 episodes of watery diarrhea. The patient has no fever, vomiting, or urinary symptoms. His past medical history is unremarkable. The patient's father died at age 60 from abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture. He is a lifetime nonsmoker. His vital signs are normal. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast is shown in the image below:
All gastrointestinal symptoms resolve in 2 hours without any intervention, and the patient wants to go home. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the renal findings on the CT scan?
A) Antibiotics
B) Percutaneous aspiration
C) Reassurance only
D) Surgical excision
E) Ureteral stent placement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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