A 62-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family due to dizziness. She was unable to get out of bed and go to the bathroom this morning and has had headache and nausea. The patient has a history of migraine headaches and hypertension. Six months ago, she had an episode of transient right-sided vision loss and was prescribed aspirin. Other medications include amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 156/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. On physical examination, the patient moves all extremities, and deep tendon reflexes are symmetric. CT scan of the head is shown in the image. The patient is admitted to the hospital. An hour after admission, she appears lethargic but follows simple commands. She had a single episode of vomiting in the emergency department. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anticoagulation
B) Intravenous corticosteroids
C) Loop diuretics
D) Lumbar puncture
E) Surgery
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q19: A 36-year-old woman comes to the office
Q20: A 68-year-old woman comes to the office
Q21: A 56-year-old woman comes to the office
Q22: A 67-year-old man was hospitalized yesterday following
Q23: A 78-year-old woman comes to the office
Q25: A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q26: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the
Q27: A 46-year-old woman comes to the office
Q28: A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q29: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents