A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a persistent, painful erection he has had for the past 6 hours. The patient has had similar episodes that lasted 1-2 hours but resolved spontaneously. He says his symptoms started this morning without provocation when he woke up. The patient recently started a summer job working outside pouring concrete. Medical history includes sickle cell disease; he has not taken any medications other than his usual folic acid. The patient does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. On examination, the penis is rigid, and the glans is soft. The scrotum is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer a packed red blood cell transfusion
B) Administer an intravenous beta blocker
C) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
D) Aspirate blood from the corpora cavernosa
E) Insert a urinary catheter
Correct Answer:
Verified
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