A 62-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to an acute right-sided headache, ocular pain, and nausea. She was watching television in the evening after dinner when the symptoms began; initial treatment with cold compresses and acetaminophen was ineffective. The patient then developed decreased vision in the right eye and called for an ambulance. On examination, she appears uncomfortable and has episodic retching. The right eye has red conjunctival flushing; the right pupil is mid-dilated and nonreactive to light. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Dilated fundus examination
B) Fluorescein eye examination
C) High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
D) Intravenous acetazolamide
E) Oral valacyclovir
Correct Answer:
Verified
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