A 34-year-old man comes to the office due to a persistent, painful erection for 12 hours without sexual stimulation. He has had no trauma to the perineal region. Over the past few months, the patient has also had fatigue. He has no prior medical conditions and takes no medications. Family history is significant for stroke in his father and hypothyroidism in his mother. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. There is no lymphadenopathy. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The liver and spleen are palpable. The penis is erect, is tender, and has venous engorgement. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. The patient is given appropriate treatment, with reduction of symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Chest x-ray
B) Complete blood count
C) Electrocardiography
D) Monospot test
E) MRI of the spine
F) Serum ferritin level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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