A 46-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of a rash on her breast. For the past 2 months, the patient has had a pruritic rash on her left breast that has slowly spread. She has had no fever, nipple discharge, or recent changes in soaps or laundry detergent. The patient has used a topical antibiotic ointment and a drying powder over the rash but has had no improvement. She has well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. BMI is 37 kg/m2. The left breast is diffusely enlarged with an area of erythema below the areola that extends to the inframammary fold. There are no palpable breast masses. Two nontender lymph nodes are palpated in the left axilla. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Mammogram a year ago was normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Biopsy of the breast lesion
B) KOH skin scraping
C) MRI of the breast
D) Oral antibiotics
E) Topical steroids
Correct Answer:
Verified
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