A 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use is admitted to the hospital for treatment of cellulitis due to chronic lower extremity venous stasis ulcers. Intravenous antibiotic therapy is administered, and saline-moistened wet-to-dry gauze dressing changes are performed. Following resolution of the cellulitis, the patient is evaluated for potential wound coverage with skin grafting. He declines the procedure but agrees to perform any recommended wound care. Examination of the affected area on the left lower leg is shown in the exhibit.
Irrigation of the wound is performed. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's wound?
A) Change to nonadherent, moisture-retaining dressing
B) Change to wet-to-dry gauze dressings using Dakin (0.25% bleach) solution
C) Leave the wounds open to air
D) Perform sharp debridement down to bleeding tissue
Correct Answer:
Verified
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